IMT SOLVED ASSIGNMENTS AVAILABLE – HRME005 TEST2
ASSIGNMENT
************FOR ANSWERS CONTACT US AT 9015596280, 9212129290*****************
Question 1 of 30:
The head of sales and the head of production are given the same rating during their
performance appraisal. Which of the following is true in this case?
a. They performed equally well.
b. The value of the rating is higher for the head of sales than for the head of production.
c. The head of production can be compared to the head of sales.
d. The numbers assigned as their rating are not comparable
Question 2 of 30:
How does PRD help performers?
a. It solves day-to-day problems.
b. It communicates issues about task completion.
c. It helps them obtain counselling.
d. It helps them realize their potential as managers.
Question 3 of 30:
What do employees who get the Bravo Award at Honeywell India receive?
a. A cash reward
b. An email
c. A recommendation
d. A trip to the USA
Question 4 of 30:
How can blind spots be reduced?
a. By ignoring feedback
b. By giving feedback
c. By accepting feedback
d. By being flexible
Question 5 of 30:
Attempting to attain perfect objectivity in ratings is a/an exercise.
a. correct
b. futile
c. effective
d. important
Question 6 of 30:
__________encompasses the activities that need to be carried out by individual employees by virtue of their roles and organizational requirements.
a. Performance planning
b. Job responsibilities
c. Organizational goals
d. Performance appraisal
Question 7 of 30:
A __________process is initiated at Castrol India when employees fail to meet objectives or targets.
a. PIP
b. SMART
c. Retraining
d. OPDI
Question 8 of 30:
An appraising officer recommended that an employee be sent for training. However, the senior management chose to ignore the recommendation. What could be a possible consequence of this on the appraisal system?
a. The appraisal system will be regarded as an effective system.
b. The appraisal system will continue to function as before.
c. The appraisal system will be given even more importance.
d. The seriousness and effectiveness of the appraisal system may be lost.
Question 9 of 30:
How many people does a candidate need have direct working relations with to be eligible for MAFS?
a. three
b. ten
c. four
d. Six
Question 10 of 30:
Some raters tend to like the subordinates who are like them, and therefore assign them higher ratings. This is due to the
a. recency
b. differential
c. average
d. assimilation
Question 11 of 30:
You are about to implement a 360 degree feedback system in your company. Which of the following indicators may indicate that it is not advisable to implement the system?
a. HR department has credibility.
b. Managers are satisfied with what they do and are not very eager to learn.
c. There is a high degree of emphasis on teamwork.
d. The organization is value-driven.
Question 12 of 30:
Ritu had expected her team to perform at a certain level. However, due to certain circumstances, they are not able to meet their targets. What should Ritu do?
a. She should hold her team to the same standards.
b. She should keep the same expectation but excuse failures.
c. She should revaluate her expectations given the circumstances.
d. She should increase her expectations.
Question 13 of 30:
The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate employees to
a. apply for managerial positions
b. remove any performance deficiencies
c. revise their performance standards
d. enroll in work-related training programs
Question 14 of 30
You are a manager who is decentralizing the management of the PMS. How will you do this?
a. Let HR managers conduct the entire process.
b. Educate and encourage line managers to be integral to the PMS.
c. Keep the PMS separate from the rest of the functions of the organization
d. Only let top executives be a part of the PMS.
Question 15 of 30:
Which of the following is NOT a nominal scale?
a. Security numbers
b. House numbers
c. Ranks in an exam
d. License plates
Question 16 of 30:
Which of the following statements about PRD is false?
a. PRDs are usually informal.
b. PRD is a neutral term.
c. PRD is a systematic review.
d. OPRD focuses on the performer.
Question 17 of 30:
Which of the following is an important objective of a PMS?
a. Utilize the competency of an employee in the best possible manner
b. Reprimand employees for their deficiencies
c. Determine monetary rewards for employees
d. Rate employees on an ordinal scale
Question 18 of 30:
According to Herzberg, what are ‘hygiene’s’?
a. Factors that cause happiness
b. Factors that determine how clean the company is
c. Factors that cause work dissatisfaction
d. Factors that cause satisfaction
Question 19 of 30:
Which of the following causes the ‘recency effect?
a. When the raters assign ratings due to good behavior
b. When the raters assign ratings due to mistakes in the distant past
c. When the raters assign positive ratings to performers who are similar to them
d. When the raters assign rating according to behavior close to the time of rating
Question 20 of 30:
Which of the following is a component of the influencing part of a PRD?
a. mutuality
b. empathy
c. feedback
d. positive reinforcement
Question 21 of 30:
Which of the following is self-awareness NOT related to?
a. Emotional awareness
b. Acute self-assessment
c. Self-confidence
d. Empathy
Question 22 of 30:
Which of the following qualities should the top management of an organization have before one can consider implementing MAFS?
a. They should be financially stable.
b. They should be focused in maintaining employees in pre-existing structures.
c. They should be critical of pre-existing performance management systems.
d. They should open to creating opportunities for employees.
Question 23 of 30:
Which of the following scales is amenable to multiplication?
a. ordinal
b. nominal
c. interval
d. ratio
Question 24 of 30:
Ravindra had been able to meet the targets set by his superior. However, in discussion with his superior he came to the conclusion that he would benefit from attending a seminar. Which component of the PMS operated in this case?
a. Performance analysis
b. Performance review discussion
c. Identification of developmental needs
d. Potential assessment
Question 25 of 30:
Which of the following is most closely related to potential?
a. competencies
b. performance
c. KPAS
d. biases
Question 26 of 30:
Raina is a manager of a team. One of her team members has failed to meet their target. Which of the following questions will be helpful during the PRD?
a. Why did you fail to achieve your targets?
b. Was the delivery period why you failed to achieve the targets?
c. How did you fail to achieve this target?
d. Why do you think we failed to achieve our target?
Question 27 of 30:
Why does PMS often lead to demotivation and ‘politics”?
a. Because PMS is decentralized
b. Because employees are not properly reviewed
c. Because people are selectively rewarded
d. Because PMS is not comprehensive
Question 28 of 30:
What should be the general climate of the conversation during a PRD?
a. Guarded
b. Congenial
c. Familiar
d. Hostile
Question 29 of 30:
What is the performance rating of an employee who has high ability but only gives a moderate effort?
a. highest
b. lower
c. lower average
d. upper average
Question 30 of 30:
Which type of test is used to evaluate verbal ability and numerical reasoning?
a. Aptitude test
b. Competency test
c. Ability test
d. Problem-solving test